Name: 
 

Physical Science - Exam REVIEW ITEMS - Fall 2008



True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.
 

 1. 

Light waves are examples of transverse waves.
 

 2. 

On the Fahrenheit scale water freezes at –32ºF.
 

 3. 

A degree on the Fahrenheit scale is a bigger unit than a degree on the Celsius scale.
 

 4. 

If a person tries to lift a heavy box for 5 seconds and can't make it budge, the work done on the box is equal to the amount of energy the person uses.
 

 5. 

Machines decrease the amount of energy that is needed to do work.
 

 6. 

Because of friction, using machines increases the amount of energy that is needed to do work.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 7. 

For a scientific theory to be valid, it must allow you to
A)
perform experiments.
C)
find a new, more complex explanation.
B)
obtain new results each time.
D)
make predictions.
 

 8. 

Scientific theories can be changed or replaced when
A)
new technology is invented.
B)
new discoveries are made.
C)
scientists decide to work on different problems.
D)
scientists make models of events or objects.
 

 9. 

Scientists test a hypothesis by
A)
formulating questions.
C)
doing experiments.
B)
designing models.
D)
drawing conclusions.
 

 10. 

The SI unit for measuring temperature is the
A)
degree.
C)
mole.
B)
kelvin.
D)
ampere.
 

 11. 

Which SI prefix means one million?
A)
kilo-
C)
giga-
B)
mega-
D)
milli-
 

 12. 

Which SI prefix means one one-hundredth (1/100)?
A)
nano-
C)
milli-
B)
micro-
D)
centi-
 

 13. 

A loaf of bread weighs 1362 g. The weight in kilograms is
A)
1.362 kg.
C)
01362 kg.
B)
1362 kg.
D)
001362 kg.
 

 14. 

The force with which gravity pulls on a quantity of matter is referred to as
A)
mass.
C)
volume.
B)
length.
D)
weight.
 

 15. 

Matter is defined as anything that
A)
can be seen and touched.
C)
can be weighed.
B)
has mass and takes up space.
D)
contains kinetic or potential energy.
 

 16. 

A substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances is
A)
a compound.
C)
an element.
B)
a mixture.
D)
an atom.
 

 17. 

The chemical formula for water, H2O, means that each water molecule contains
A)
two hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms.
B)
two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom.
C)
two hydrogen atoms and zero oxygen atoms.
D)
one hydrogen atom and two oxygen atoms.
 

 18. 

The science of what matter is made of and how it changes is called
A)
chemistry.
C)
kinetics.
B)
physics.
D)
engineering.
 

 19. 

The chemical formula for table sugar is C12H22O11. How many oxygen atoms are in each sugar molecule?
A)
2
C)
12
B)
11
D)
22
 

 20. 

The resistance of a fluid to flow is referred to as
A)
pressure.
C)
viscosity.
B)
energy.
D)
shape.
 

 21. 

The law of conservation of mass states that mass cannot be
A)
burned.
C)
created or destroyed.
B)
changed in form.
D)
heated or cooled.
 

 22. 

A substance has a mass of 360 g and a volume of 7.5 cm3. What is its density?
A)
2700 g/cm3
C)
480 g/cm3
B)
270 g/cm3
D)
48 g/cm3
 

 23. 

Digesting food is an example of
A)
physical change.
C)
chemical change.
B)
change of state.
D)
buoyancy.
 

 24. 

Which state of matter will hold its shape without a container?
A)
solid
C)
gas
B)
liquid
D)
plasma
 

 25. 

Evaporation refers to the change of state from a
A)
liquid to a gas.
C)
solid to a liquid.
B)
gas to a liquid.
D)
liquid to a solid.
 

 26. 

A liquid changes rapidly into a gas at the liquid's
A)
boiling point.
C)
melting point.
B)
freezing point.
D)
condensation point.
 

 27. 

Which statement about the atomic nucleus is correct?
A)
The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a negative charge.
B)
The nucleus is made of protons and neutrons and has a positive charge.
C)
The nucleus is made of electrons and has a positive charge.
D)
The nucleus is made of electrons and has a negative charge.
 

 28. 

Atoms have no electric charge because they
A)
have an equal number of charged and noncharged particles.
B)
have neutrons in their nuclei.
C)
have an equal number of electrons and protons.
D)
have an equal number of neutrons and protons.
 

 29. 

Atoms of elements that are in the same group have the same number of
A)
protons.
C)
valence electrons.
B)
neutrons.
D)
protons and neutrons.
 

 30. 

An atom's mass number equals the number of
A)
protons plus the number of electrons.
C)
protons.
B)
protons plus the number of neutrons.
D)
neutrons.
 

 31. 

An atomic mass unit is equal to
A)
one-half the mass of a hydrogen atom.
B)
one-fourth the mass of a lithium atom.
C)
one-twelfth the mass of a carbon-12 atom.
D)
one-fifteenth the mass of a nitrogen-15 atom.
 

 32. 

Which of the following elements is an alkali metal?
A)
calcium
C)
mercury
B)
magnesium
D)
sodium
 

 33. 

A mole is an SI base unit that describes the
A)
mass of a substance.
C)
volume of a substance.
B)
amount of a substance.
D)
electric charge of a substance.
 

 34. 

If the atomic mass of carbon is 12 amu, 1 mole of pure carbon will have a mass of
A)
6 g.
C)
12 g.
B)
6 mol.
D)
12 mol.
 

 35. 

The average atomic mass of potassium is approximately 39 amu. What is the mass of 2.0 mol of potassium?
A)
0.39 g
C)
39 g
B)
0.78 g
D)
78 g
 

 36. 

A compound differs from a mixture because it
A)
always remains frozen even at high temperatures.
B)
is formed from two cations.
C)
always contains the same elements in the same proportion.
D)
can form only in the presence of heat energy.
 

 37. 

Each molecule of hydrochloric acid, HCl, contains one atom of hydrogen and
A)
one atom of chlorine.
C)
two atoms of chlorine.
B)
one atom of oxygen.
D)
two atoms of oxygen.
 

 38. 

An ionic bond is a bond that forms between
A)
ions with opposite charges.
B)
atoms with neutral charges.
C)
one atom's nucleus and another atom's electrons.
D)
the electrons of two different atoms.
 

 39. 

Covalent bonds are formed between
A)
ions.
C)
nonmetal atoms.
B)
metal atoms.
D)
compounds.
 

 40. 

In which type of bond do atoms share electrons?
A)
covalent bonds
C)
ionic bonds
B)
metallic bonds
D)
polyatomic bonds
 

 41. 

The anion formed from an oxygen atom is called a(n)
A)
oxygen ion.
C)
carbon dioxide.
B)
oxide ion.
D)
nitrous oxide.
 

 42. 

The name dinitrogen tetroxide tells you that this compound contains
A)
two nitrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms.
B)
four nitrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms.
C)
two nitrogen atoms and four oxygen atoms.
D)
four nitrogen atoms and four oxygen atoms.
 

 43. 

Formaldehyde, CH2O, and acetic acid, C2H4O2, have the same empirical formula but different
A)
kinds of cations.
C)
kinds of atoms.
B)
kinds of anions.
D)
molecular formulas.
 

 44. 

A carbon atom can bond to four other atoms because it has
A)
four different cations.
C)
two inner energy levels.
B)
four valence electrons.
D)
no protons in its nucleus.
 

 45. 

Alkanes are hydrocarbons that contain
A)
single covalent bonds only.
C)
carbon and oxygen only.
B)
single or double covalent bonds.
D)
carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
 

 46. 

Polymers are large organic molecules that are made of
A)
cations.
C)
carbon and oxygen only.
B)
anions.
D)
repeating units.
 

 47. 

Which compounds have carbon-carbon double bonds?
A)
alkanes
C)
alcohols
B)
alkenes
D)
ionic compounds
 

 48. 

A substance that undergoes a change in a chemical reaction is
A)
a product.
C)
a reactant.
B)
a chemical.
D)
an enzyme.
 

 49. 

What happens in a chemical reaction?
A)
Atoms are destroyed.
C)
Atoms are heated and cooled.
B)
Atoms are created.
D)
Atoms are rearranged.
 

 50. 

The energy source in photosynthesis is
A)
light energy.
C)
heat energy.
B)
chemical energy.
D)
kinetic energy.
 

 51. 

The product of the synthesis reaction between sodium and chlorine gas is
A)
polyethylene.
C)
sodium chloride.
B)
carbon dioxide.
D)
copper (II) chloride.
 

 52. 

When water is broken down by electrolysis, the products are
A)
water and carbon dioxide.
C)
hydrogen gas and oxygen gas.
B)
hydrogen and oxygen ions.
D)
oxygen and methane.
 

 53. 

A chemical equation is balanced by changing or adding
A)
chemical symbols.
C)
coefficients.
B)
subscripts.
D)
reactants.
 

 54. 

In the reaction 2H2O 2H2 + O2, if you start with 2 mol of water, how many moles of hydrogen gas are produced?
A)
1 mol
C)
3 mol
B)
2 mol
D)
4 mol
 

 55. 

In a balanced chemical reaction, the total mass of the products always equals the
A)
molar mass of the reactants.
C)
total mass of the reactants.
B)
atomic mass of the reactants.
D)
proportional masses of the reactants.
 

 56. 

Which of the following is an example of a heterogeneous mixture?
A)
salt water
C)
sugar solution
B)
vinegar
D)
mayonnaise
 

 57. 

Distillation can be used to separate solutions of miscible liquids because
A)
different liquids usually have different boiling points.
B)
boiling breaks the chemical bonds within each liquid.
C)
denser liquids sink to the bottom.
D)
solids remain after the liquids are boiled away.
 

 58. 

Loose sugar dissolves much faster than a sugar cube because loose sugar has
A)
a greater surface area.
C)
a higher temperature.
B)
less kinetic energy.
D)
a greater surface tension.
 

 59. 

You can make a solute dissolve more quickly in a solvent by
A)
adding more solute.
C)
heating the solvent.
B)
adding ice.
D)
removing some solvent.
 

 60. 

Water is referred to as the universal solvent because
A)
it is found throughout the universe.
B)
all known substances dissolve in water.
C)
many different substances dissolve in water.
D)
it covers more than half of the Earth's surface.
 

 61. 

When dissolved in water, all acids will
A)
form hydroxide ions.
C)
conduct electricity.
B)
have a negative charge.
D)
turn blue.
 

 62. 

A solution that is mildly acidic would have a pH of approximately
A)
2.
C)
6.
B)
4.
D)
8.
 

 63. 

The pH of a substance is a measure of its
A)
boiling point.
C)
ability to mix with water.
B)
food value.
D)
hydronium ion concentration.
 

 64. 

The label on a bottle indicates that the substance inside has a pH of 13.  This tells you that the substance is
A)
neutral.
C)
mildly basic.
B)
strongly acidic.
D)
strongly basic.
 

 65. 

Which of the following is a basic solution?
A)
household ammonia
C)
vinegar
B)
HCl dissolved in water
D)
pure water
 

 66. 

Fusion occurs when nuclei
A)
split.
C)
mutate.
B)
combine.
D)
gain energy.
 

 67. 

The opposite reaction to fusion is called
A)
beta decay.
C)
fission.
B)
alpha decay.
D)
neutron transmission.
 

 68. 

In the equation E = mc2, "c" stands for
A)
carbon.
C)
the speed of light.
B)
the total energy.
D)
the size of the particle.
 

 69. 

The distance traveled by an object divided by the time it takes to travel that distance is called
A)
average velocity.
C)
average acceleration.
B)
average speed.
D)
activity.
 

 70. 

What is the speed of an object at rest?
A)
15 km/h
B)
0 km/h
C)
1 km/h
D)
This cannot be determined without further information.
 

 71. 

The difference between speed and velocity is that velocity includes
A)
direction.
C)
time.
B)
distance.
D)
weight.
 

 72. 

Whenever an object is standing still, the value(s) that is/are always zero is/are
A)
speed.
C)
momentum.
B)
velocity.
D)
all of the above.
 

 73. 

Acceleration is defined as the change in velocity divided by
A)
speed.
C)
time.
B)
final velocity.
D)
distance.
 

 74. 

The SI unit for acceleration is
A)
mph.
C)
m/s2.
B)
ft/sec2.
D)
Δv ÷ t.
 

 75. 

When the velocity of an object changes, it is acted upon by a(n)
A)
force.
C)
momentum.
B)
inertia.
D)
deceleration.
 

 76. 

If the net force on an object is zero then the object has
A)
reaction forces.
C)
balanced forces.
B)
action forces.
D)
unbalanced forces.
 

 77. 

Friction is defined as
A)
force that opposes motion between two surfaces that are touching.
B)
rate at which velocity changes.
C)
resistance of an object to a change in its velocity.
D)
speed of an object in a particular direction.
 

 78. 

Weight is best described as
A)
an object’s resistance to acceleration.
B)
what causes an object to fall.
C)
the downward force exerted on objects due to gravity.
D)
a force solely dependent on an object’s mass.
 

 79. 

When objects are moved further apart from each other, the force of gravity
A)
increases.
C)
decreases.
B)
stays the same.
D)
decreases at first and then increases.
 

 80. 

The law that states that every object maintains constant velocity unless acted on by an unbalanced force is
A)
Newton’s first law of motion.
C)
Newton’s third law of motion.
B)
Newton’s second law of motion.
D)
the law of conservation of momentum.
 

 81. 

The law that states that for every action force there is an equal and opposite reaction force is
A)
Newton’s first law of motion.
C)
Newton’s third law of motion.
B)
Newton’s second law of motion.
D)
the law of conservation of momentum.
 

 82. 

The law that states that the unbalanced force acting on an object equals the object’s mass times its acceleration is
A)
Newton’s first law of motion.
C)
Newton’s third law of motion.
B)
Newton’s second law of motion.
D)
the law of conservation of momentum.
 

 83. 

The SI unit of force, named for the scientist who described the relationship between motion and force, is called the
A)
newton.
C)
curie.
B)
einstein.
D)
pasteur.
 

 84. 

Which of the following units is used to measure acceleration in free fall?
A)
m/s
C)
m/s2
B)
ms
D)
m2/s2
 

 85. 

A boy pushes on a parked car with a force of 200 N. The car does not move. How much work does the boy do on the car?
A)
200 N
C)
zero
B)
200 J
D)
can't be determined
 

 86. 

Which of the following processes requires the most work?
A)
A 10 kg weight rests on a table.
B)
A person holds a 1 kg weight still with outstretched arms.
C)
A person lifts a 1 kg weight 1 m off the floor.
D)
A 10 kg ball is rolled across the floor at a constant speed for a distance of 10 m.
 

 87. 

A man pushes a crate along a factory floor by exerting a force of 55 N. If the crate moves a distance of 4.0 m, how much work does the man perform?
A)
165 N
C)
zero
B)
220 N
D)
145 J
 

 88. 

What are the units of power?
A)
watts
C)
joules per second
B)
horsepower
D)
all of the above
 

 89. 

A weight lifter presses a 400 N weight 0.5 m over his head in 2 seconds. What is the power of the weight lifter?
A)
100 N
C)
400 watts
B)
25 watts
D)
100 watts
 

 90. 

Gravitational potential energy depends on the ____
A)
the mass of the object.
C)
the acceleration due to gravity.
B)
the height of the object.
D)
All of the above
 

 91. 

A medicine ball has a mass of 5 kg and is thrown with a speed of 2 m/s. What is its kinetic energy?
A)
100 J
C)
2000 J
B)
10 J
D)
500 J
 

 92. 

The primary source of the sun's energy is
A)
chemical energy.
C)
nuclear fission.
B)
nuclear fusion.
D)
potential energy.
 

 93. 

Sound waves
A)
require a medium.
C)
are not mechanical waves.
B)
are unrelated to vibrations.
D)
can travel in a vacuum.
 

 94. 

Light waves
A)
require a medium.
C)
are caused by a vibrating object.
B)
cannot travel through solids.
D)
are electromagnetic waves.
 

 95. 

How loud a sound is depends on
A)
the wavelength of the sound.
C)
the amplitude of the waves.
B)
the pitch of the sound.
D)
the medium.
 

 96. 

The color of light is determined by ____ of the light waves.
A)
the medium
C)
the frequency
B)
the speed
D)
the amplitude
 

 97. 

Light rays that pass through a lens change direction because
A)
each light ray strikes the curved surface at a different angle.
B)
they are refracted.
C)
light is broken up into many different colors.
D)
virtual images always appear slightly larger than real images.
 

 98. 

Light travels as
A)
electrical waves.
C)
electromagnetic waves.
B)
magnetic waves.
D)
electrochemical waves.
 

 99. 

Microwaves are a form of
A)
electric waves.
C)
sound waves.
B)
mechanical waves.
D)
electromagnetic waves.
 

 100. 

A light-year is
A)
a unit of time.
C)
a unit of mass.
B)
a unit of distance.
D)
a unit of density.
 

 101. 

What is 2 + 2 ?
A)
45
B)
222
C)
547
D)
11
E)
4
 

 102. 

The main branches of natural science are
A)
physics and chemistry.
C)
medicine and agriculture.
B)
biology, zoology, and ecology.
D)
life, physical, and earth science.
 

 103. 

Pure science is best defined as the
A)
continuing search for new knowledge.
B)
use of science to solve human problems.
C)
study of the makeup of living things.
D)
application of scientific knowledge.
 

 104. 

Scientists use computer models to study complicated events and to
A)
perform experiments.
C)
change theories and laws.
B)
state theories.
D)
make predictions.
 

 105. 

What is 78,900,000,000 expressed in scientific notation?
A)
789 physical_science_review_f_files/i1070000.jpg 109
C)
7.89 physical_science_review_f_files/i1070001.jpg 1010
B)
7.89 physical_science_review_f_files/i1070002.jpg 109
D)
7.89 physical_science_review_f_files/i1070003.jpg 1011
 

 106. 

The speed of light is approximately 3 physical_science_review_f_files/i1080000.jpg 108 m/s. How would this be written in conventional notation?
A)
300,000 m/s
C)
30,000,000 m/s
B)
3,000,000 m/s
D)
300,000,000 m/s
 

 107. 

An example of a naturally occurring magnetic rock is
A)
lodestone.
C)
limestone.
B)
soapstone.
D)
peastone.
 

 108. 

The north pole of one magnet will be
A)
attracted to the north pole of another magnet.
B)
attracted to the south pole of the same magnet.
C)
repelled by the north pole of another magnet.
D)
repelled by the south pole of another magnet.
 

 109. 

Like magnet poles always
A)
repel each other.
B)
attract each other.
C)
cancel out each other’s magnetic fields.
D)
point toward the north pole.
 

 110. 

The magnetism of a piece of magnetized iron can be weakened by
A)
heating the iron and hammering it.
B)
putting it near a piece of unmagnetized iron.
C)
bending the iron.
D)
none of the above.
 

 111. 

Magnetic force
A)
is strongest near a magnet's poles.
C)
acts at a distance.
B)
is a field force.
D)
all of the above.
 

 112. 

Earth’s magnetic poles are located in
A)
Canada and Australia.
B)
Canada and Alaska.
C)
Canada and Antarctica.
D)
the same positions as the geographic poles.
 

 113. 

Magnetic fields are produced by
A)
magnetic force.
C)
gravitational force.
B)
electric currents.
D)
water currents.
 

 114. 

There is a repulsive force between two charged objects when
A)
charges are of unlike sign.
B)
they have the same number of protons.
C)
charges are of like sign.
D)
they have the same number of electrons.
 

 115. 

There is an attractive force between two charged objects when
A)
charges are of unlike sign.
B)
they have the same number of protons.
C)
charges are of like sign.
D)
they have the same number of electrons.
 

 116. 

When there is an equal amount of positive and negative charges on an object, the object is
A)
positively charged.
C)
neutral.
B)
negatively charged.
D)
supercharged.
 

 117. 

The electric force between charged objects is
A)
attractive only.
C)
either attractive or repulsive.
B)
repulsive only.
D)
neither attractive nor repulsive.
 

 118. 

Every charged particle produces
A)
a negative charge.
C)
a magnetic field.
B)
a positive charge.
D)
an electric field.
 

 119. 

Potential difference is measured in
A)
amperes.
C)
coulombs.
B)
volts.
D)
joules.
 

 120. 

Current is the rate at which charges move through a(n)
A)
conductor.
C)
voltage.
B)
insulator.
D)
joule.
 

 121. 

The brightness of a light bulb is determined by its filament’s
A)
voltage.
C)
watts.
B)
amperes.
D)
resistance.
 

 122. 

Resistance is caused by
A)
internal friction.
C)
proton charge.
B)
electron charge.
D)
a heat source.
 

 123. 

The SI unit of resistance is the
A)
volt.
C)
ohm.
B)
ampere.
D)
joule.
 

 124. 

What is –175ºC on the Kelvin scale?
A)
76 K
C)
98 K
B)
89 K
D)
448 K
 

 125. 

The transfer of energy as heat caused by the collision of molecules is called
A)
convection.
C)
contact.
B)
conduction.
D)
radiation.
 

 126. 

The transfer of energy by the movement of fluids or gases with different temperatures is called
A)
convection.
C)
contact.
B)
conduction.
D)
radiation.
 

 127. 

Energy from the sun reaches Earth by
A)
conduction and radiation.
C)
conduction and convection.
B)
radiation only.
D)
conduction only.
 

 128. 

What are the units of work?
A)
J
C)
kg•m2/s2
B)
N•m
D)
all of the above
 

 129. 

A machine is a device that
A)
requires less work to do a given task.
B)
decreases the amount of work done by a given force.
C)
increases energy.
D)
can multiply and change the direction of an input force.
 

 130. 

A first-class lever has the
A)
fulcrum at one end and the output force between the fulcrum and the input force.
B)
fulcrum at one end and the input force between the fulcrum and the output force.
C)
fulcrum in the middle.
D)
input force in the middle.
 

 131. 

A wheelbarrow is an example of a
A)
first-class lever.
C)
third-class lever.
B)
second-class lever.
D)
fourth-class lever.
 

 132. 

Which of the following is an example of a third-class lever?
A)
a nutcracker
C)
a crow bar
B)
a hand-held boat paddle
D)
a screw
 

 133. 

An inclined plane
A)
changes the direction of the force only.
B)
changes the magnitude of the force only.
C)
changes both the magnitude and the direction of the force.
D)
decreases the amount of work done.
 

 134. 

An airplane is flying at 635 km per hour at an altitude of 35 000 m. It is currently over Kansas and is approximately 16 minutes ahead of its scheduled arrival time. What is its velocity?
A)
635 km/h
B)
16 m/min
C)
35 000 m/s
D)
This cannot be determined without further information about its direction.
 

 135. 

Which of the following does not indicate velocity?
A)
14 m/s SSE
B)
40 km/h toward the town square along the main street
C)
80 km/h going from New York toward New Jersey
D)
28 km from Los Angeles to Catalina Island
 

 136. 

Which of the following is not a factor in calculating momentum?
A)
mass
C)
acceleration
B)
direction
D)
speed
 

 137. 

If you divide momentum by velocity, the result is the value of the object’s
A)
mass.
C)
energy.
B)
direction.
D)
speed.
 

 138. 

A 10.0 kg dog chasing a rabbit north at 6.0 m/s has a momentum of
A)
0.6 kg•m/s.
C)
60.0 m/s.
B)
60.0 kg•m/s north.
D)
60.0 kg/s.
 

 139. 

The combination of all of the forces acting on an object is called the
A)
total force.
C)
super force.
B)
union of forces.
D)
net force.
 

 140. 

If the net force acting on a stationary object is zero, then the object will
A)
accelerate in the direction of the strongest force.
B)
remain at rest.
C)
begin moving backwards.
D)
decelerate at a steady rate of speed.
 

 141. 

A tug-of-war that results in one team pulling the other across the line is an example of
A)
action forces.
C)
balanced forces.
B)
reaction forces.
D)
unbalanced forces.
 

 142. 

Which of the following situations best demonstrates the effects of friction?
A)
a parachutist descending to the ground
C)
an apple falling from a tree
B)
a loaded slingshot
D)
two trucks colliding
 

 143. 

Of the following, the greatest gravitational force would occur between
A)
a marble and a baseball 5 meters apart.
B)
a loaded freighter on the high seas and Earth.
C)
the moon and an astronaut standing on the moon.
D)
the moon and Earth.
 

 144. 

When air resistance balances the weight of an object that is falling, the velocity
A)
slowly decreases.
C)
rapidly increases.
B)
remains constant.
D)
none of the above.
 

 145. 

What kind of reaction occurs when potassium is placed in water?
A)
a single-displacement reaction
C)
a decomposition reaction
B)
a double-displacement reaction
D)
electrolysis
 

 146. 

A balanced chemical equation shows the proportions of reactants and products necessary for
A)
the reaction to occur.
C)
energy use to be minimized.
B)
mass to be conserved.
D)
electrolysis to occur.
 

 147. 

In the reaction 2H2O2 2H2O + O2, if you start with 4 mol of H2O2, how many moles of O2 will you end up with?
A)
4 mol
C)
2 mol
B)
3 mol
D)
1 mol
 

 148. 

All of the following factors may speed up a chemical reaction except
A)
smaller surface area.
C)
higher temperature.
B)
higher pressure.
D)
presence of a catalyst.
 

 149. 

The forces that hold different atoms or ions together are
A)
electric currents.
C)
physical bonds.
B)
chemical bonds.
D)
nuclear forces.
 

 150. 

A mixture is different from a compound because each substance in a mixture
A)
retains its own properties.
C)
forms an ion.
B)
changes its electric charge.
D)
changes from a solid to a liquid.
 

 151. 

Each molecule of table sugar, C12H22O11, contains
A)
0 atoms of carbon.
C)
6 atoms of carbon.
B)
1 atom of carbon.
D)
12 atoms of carbon.
 

 152. 

Which compound is formed from a tight network of oppositely charged ions?
A)
sugar, C12H22O11
C)
water, H2O
B)
quartz, SiO2
D)
salt, NaCl
 

 153. 

Gases take up a lot of space because
A)
they have weak chemical bonds.
B)
their molecules have very little attraction for one another.
C)
they contain very few atoms.
D)
they have a small molar mass.
 

 154. 

Copper is a good conductor of electricity because its electrons
A)
are positively charged.
B)
are free to move from atom to atom.
C)
can take on either positive or negative charges.
D)
are shared between neighboring compounds.
 

 155. 

Fe2O3 is named iron(III) oxide because it contains
A)
three oxygen atoms.
C)
three iron atoms.
B)
Fe3+ ions.
D)
O3+ ions.
 

 156. 

When nickel combines with fluorine to form nickel(III) fluoride, the charge of the nickel ion is
A)
Ni1+.
C)
Ni3+.
B)
Ni2+.
D)
Ni4+.
 

 157. 

The name for the compound with the formula CuBr2 would be written as
A)
copper(II) bromide.
C)
copper bromine.
B)
copper(I) bromide.
D)
copper(III) bromide.
 

 158. 

The simplest organic compound is
A)
aspirin.
C)
salt.
B)
table sugar.
D)
methane.
 

 159. 

Valence electrons determine an atom's
A)
mass.
C)
electric charge.
B)
chemical properties.
D)
period.
 

 160. 

Ionization refers to the process of
A)
changing from one period to another.
C)
turning lithium into fluorine.
B)
losing or gaining protons.
D)
losing or gaining electrons.
 

 161. 

Which statement about the alkali metals is correct?
A)
They are located in the left-most column of the periodic table.
B)
They are extremely nonreactive.
C)
They are usually gases.
D)
They form negative ions with a 1– charge.
 

 162. 

Group 18 noble gases are inert because
A)
they readily form positive ions.
B)
they can have either a positive or a negative charge.
C)
their outermost energy level is missing one electron.
D)
their outermost energy level is full.
 

 163. 

The average atomic mass of the element cesium is approximately 133 amu. What is the mass of 3.00 mol of cesium?
A)
0.133 g
C)
266 g
B)
133 g
D)
399 g
 

 164. 

What is the mass in grams of 0.75 mol of sulfur, which has a molar mass of approximately 32 g/mol?
A)
16 g
C)
32 g
B)
24 g
D)
240 g
 

 165. 

The chemical element that is most abundant in the human body is
A)
nitrogen.
C)
carbon.
B)
iron.
D)
oxygen.
 

 166. 

The element that is most abundant in Earth is
A)
iron.
C)
silicon.
B)
oxygen.
D)
magnesium.
 

 167. 

The change of a substance from a solid directly to a gas is called
A)
condensation.
C)
melting.
B)
evaporation.
D)
sublimation.
 

 168. 

The ability to change or to move matter is referred to as
A)
kinetic theory.
C)
evaporation.
B)
energy.
D)
heating.
 

 169. 

All changes of the state of matter require
A)
water.
C)
energy.
B)
vibration.
D)
sublimation.
 

Completion
Complete each sentence or statement.
 

 170. 

Wilhelm Roentgen discovered ____________________ while he was investigating cathode rays.
 

 

 171. 

Life science, physical science, and earth science make up ____________________ science.
 

 

 172. 

The application of science to meet human needs is referred to as ____________________.
 

 

 173. 

A mathematical representation of an object or event is a ____________________.
 

 

 174. 

Scientists use models to represent real situations and to make ____________________.
 

 

 175. 

The scientific method gives scientists a way to ____________________ their thinking about a problem or question.
 

 

 176. 

A possible answer to a scientific problem is called a ____________________.
 

 

 177. 

To view objects that are very small, a scientist would use a ____________________ ____________________.
 

 

 178. 

In the SI system, the prefix ____________________ means one billion.
 

 

 179. 

In the SI system, the prefix ____________________ means one millionth.
 

 

 180. 

375 cm equals ____________________ m.
 

 

 181. 

The number 56,780,000,000 would be written in scientific notation as ____________________ physical_science_review_f_files/i1840000.jpg ____________________.
 

 

 182. 

The number 4.065 has ____________________ significant figures.
 

 

 183. 

The number 50.775 has ____________________ significant figures.
 

 

 184. 

____________________ is a measure of the average kinetic energy of all the particles within an object.
 

 

 185. 

A(n) ____________________ is a device for measuring temperature.
 

 

 186. 

The energy transferred between the particles of two objects because of the temperature difference between the two objects is called ____________________.
 

 

 187. 

Radio waves, infrared radiation, visible light, ultraviolet rays, and X rays are forms of ____________________.
 

 

 188. 

A(n) ____________________ is a material through which energy can be easily transferred as heat.
 

 

 189. 

A(n) ____________________ is a material that is a poor energy conductor.
 

 

 190. 

When an object covers equal distances in equal amounts of time, it is moving at a(n) ____________________ speed.
 

 

 191. 

Velocity describes both speed and ____________________.
 

 

 192. 

Mass times velocity equals ____________________.
 

 

 193. 

Because the speed of an object can change from one instant to the next, dividing the distance covered by the time of travel gives ____________________.
 

 

 194. 

When bread rises, this is a sign that a chemical reaction is producing ____________________.
 

 

 195. 

A change of ____________________ is a sign that a chemical reaction is taking place.
 

 

 196. 

A sign that a chemical reaction is taking place is release of energy in the form of ____________________ or ____________________.
 

 

 197. 

The changes that are visible during a chemical reaction are signs that the ____________________ in the reactants have been rearranged.
 

 

 198. 

In a chemical reaction, atoms are ____________________, but they are not created or destroyed.
 

 

 199. 

A chemical reaction that transfers energy from the reactants to the surroundings is referred to as ____________________.
 

 

 200. 

Photosynthesis is an example of a(n) ____________________ chemical reaction in which plants use sunlight to make glucose and oxygen.
 

 

 201. 

When elements combine to form a(n) ____________________, the resulting properties may be very different from those of the elements that make it.
 

 

 202. 

Atoms bond in compounds when their ____________________ interact.
 

 

 203. 

The word atom comes from a Greek word that means "unable to be ____________________."
 

 

 204. 

John Dalton's atomic theory stated that atoms of the same ____________________ are exactly alike.
 

 

 205. 

The nucleus of an atom has a(n) ____________________ electric charge.
 

 

 206. 

Neutrons and protons are found in the ____________________ of an atom.
 

 

 207. 

Atoms have equal numbers of ____________________ and ____________________.
 

 

 208. 

Bohr's model of the atom compares electrons to ____________________.
 

 

 209. 

According to modern atomic theory, the exact location of a(n) ____________________ is uncertain.
 

 

 210. 

The order of elements in the periodic table is based on the number of ____________________ in the nucleus.
 

 

Short Answer
 

 211. 

When an object is seen moving against a stationary background, what is the stationary background called?
 

 212. 

A large truck loaded with scrap steel weighs 14 metric tons and is traveling north on the interstate heading for Chicago. It has been averaging 48 hm/h for the journey and has traveled over 1450 km so far. It has just stopped to refuel. What is its current momentum?
 

Essay
 

 213. 

Consider your time and efforts relative to the study of chemistry (or physical science if taking physical science).  If you could magically change the past, what would you do in order to be a better chemistry or physical science student?  Your answer will not be counted wrong as long as you make what Mr. Norris considers to be a respectable answer.
 

 214. 

If you were to give an honest response to the following question, how would you fill in the blank?
  Thinking back on the amount of knowledge I have acquired while taking this class, I believe that if I compare the amount of knowledge I acquired with what I was expected to acquire (as stated in the objectives) I  ______________________  a passing grade for the course.

Possible answers for the blank could be :  should not;  definitely should not;  deserve to be given (even though I did not study at all);  deserve to fail but hope you will give me;  believe this is a lousy question, I respectfully decline to answer because I do not wish to tell a lie; deserve to fail but still hope I get; deserve.
 

 215. 

What does it mean to say that "no experiment is a failure"? Do you agree or disagree? Why?
 

 216. 

Explain why scientists use scientific notation.
 

 217. 

Why is the lowest possible temperature –273ºC?
 

Other
 

 218. 

Failure to follow ALL of the following directions will cost you a point on this exam.
PRINT your FULL name on the scantron sheet next to the word NAME.
ON THE LINE  that is ABOVE  your name, write the test form (A, B, C, etc.) of the exam you are taking.  After you have done this. BUBBLE IN AN A for this item number.
 



 
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